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Mercy, Grace, Kindness, Love

The Love of God and God's Purpose for Creation

The Many

5/11/2016

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A favorite passage of mine is Romans 5:12-19. I believe this passage shows what God had in mind regarding the reconciliation of all humanity. Now, I must proceed by comparing one bible translation which many hold to be the only God inspired writing, the King James Version to a few others. This comparison is extremely important as we will see there is a particular word missing from the KJV that has a significant bearing on the outcome of God's saving work through Christ Jesus. 

I believe the desire of God for all of humanity to be saved will be realized (1 Timothy 2:3-4). If this desire fails then God would most certainly be very sad for the rest of time. How could God be happy if so many will be lost? I know many have various answers to this question. I will just say that if God is truly happy that so many will be lost either to burning for eternity or to permanent death, then God is not who the scriptures claim Him to be, LOVE. I believe LOVE is the single attribute of God, all of the other "attributes" or traits we give God spring from LOVE. 1 Corinthians 13:4-8 tells us exactly who God is. 

Romans 5:15 KJV
(15)  But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.

According to Romans 5:15 as the KJV tells us, only many will be dead due to Adam. We can clarify that death does come upon all men in Romans 5:12 where Paul states clearly that death has passed to all men, or all of humanity. All will die. Therefore, when we read in verse 15 that many will die, this many must mean all, otherwise we have a contradiction. 

The second portion of verse 15 states that by one man, Jesus Christ, grace has abounded to many. Now, we know that all will die. How many will will receive grace? Some would say those who are predestined, others that it is those who ask Christ for salvation. The answer is somewhat different.

I have read that the KJV is missing up to 60,000 words, yes, 60,000! Lets not limit this to the King James though; most bible are missing many words. The reason is for simple readability. In the original texts there are many words such as 'the' throughout the text. In some cases these various words are very important as they quantify a subject such as in verse 15. There are numerous versions or translation that include 'the' two more times in verse 15 and these 'the's really do change the impact of the verse. Two such translations include the NRSV which I will point out not only because I use it, but because it is a very common translation used by millions of bible readers. The second is the Concordant Literal Version (CLV). The CLV was translated by A.E. Knoch who had the idea that we should have a readable translation which uses consistency in the use of English words for the Greek counterparts. Essentially one Greek word should always be translated the same throughout in English. The CLV is still a little challenging for straight through reading but it is a very valuable study help. It is filled with dots and symbols throughout the text which represent words or phrases from the originals and this was done for easy reading and space. In the front and back of the CLV there are keys to tell what the symbols represent. There are others that include these two important 'the's as well.

So, we have established that all will die, and some will receive grace, speaking in the traditional understanding of verse 15. What happens when we insert 'the' twice into the text exactly where they occur in the originals? 

Romans 5:15 NRSV
(15)  But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died through the one man's trespass, much more surely have the grace of God and the free gift in the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, abounded for the many.


Romans 5:15 CLV
(15)  But not as the offense, thus also the grace. For if, by the offense of the one, the many died, much rather the grace of God and the gratuity in grace, which is of the One Man, Jesus Christ, to the many superabounds."

We see in both the NRSV and the CLV that "the many died" and grace abounds for "the many". According to verse 12 we already noted that all will die so in verse 15 the first "the many" are ALL of humanity. What about the second "the many"? Is it the same group, ALL of humanity? Yes! It is the same "the many". If it were not the same "the many" then Paul could have said the verse as follows:


But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died through the one man's trespass, much more surely have the grace of God and the free gift in the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, abounded for many.

Thankfully Paul did not write "the many" will die but only "many" will receive grace. Why did Paul say All will die and ALL will receive grace? Because that is what the Spirit inspired Paul to write. Why do so many translations or version leave this important word out? Possibly for easier reading, or as some suggest that it did not fit the theology of the day. I certainly do not want to assume the later is the case. 

Jonathan Mitchell, a Greek scholar, has a wonderful expanded New Testament translation which is a great study tool, I highly recommend it to anyone who is a serious student of the Word. The idea of expanding the Greek text is to allow the English reader to immerse themselves into a deeper understanding of what the Greek language is actually saying. 

Romans 5:15 Jonathan Mitchell NT
(15)  Yet to the contrary, [it is] not in the same way [with] the effect of grace (result of favor; the thing graciously given) as [it was with] the effect of the fall to the side (or: = the result of the stumbling aside and the offence is not simply balanced out by the result of the joyful gift of grace  the gratuitous favor). For you see, since (or: if) by (or: in) the effect of the fall to the side (the result of the stumbling aside and the offense) of the one THE MANY (= the mass of humanity) died, MUCH MORE (= infinitely greater) [is] the Grace of God (Gods Grace; favor which is God), and the gift (or: gratuitous benefit) within Grace  a joy-producing act of Favor  by that of the One Man, Jesus Christ, surrounded (or: encircles) into encompassing superabundance (extraordinary surplus and excess) into THE MANY (= the mass of humanity).

Is this wonderful news? Yes it is! How many will receive this grace? All will. When will they receive it? That is another study which we will look at in the future but I will say not all at once. God has a plan for the Ages, not eternity, regarding salvation and it does not stop at death. 


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Gehenna (Hinnom Valley)

4/14/2016

 
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Some claim that Jesus spoke of hell more than he spoke of heaven. Is this really true?
When Jesus spoke of hell, the few times that he actually did, he was speaking of a specific place that was well known to those that were listening. In the gospels Jesus is speaking primarily to a specific people, the lost house, or sheep, of Israel. There are many places we can go to understand this.

In Matthew 15:24 Jesus said that, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

Jesus instructed his disciples in Matthew 10:6 to "Go nowhere among the Gentiles, and enter no town of the Samaritans, but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

​The gospels are more properly associated with the Old Testament as Israel is still the key that God is using for the salvation of the world. We see the need to become a Jewish proselyte well into the book of Acts to be able to enter the kingdom. This does not really change until the final rejections of the Messiah by the Jews through the Acts period and finally in Acts 28 where the apostle Paul states with final authority that he will go to the gentiles. Why is this so important to understand? We need to know who is being spoken to if we want to understand a particular passage. This is very important regarding "hell" as Jesus used the word.

Using the KJV, we find Jesus mentions hell 17 times and, incidentally, he used the word heaven 168 times. So, Jesus did speak of heaven far more frequently. Of the 17 mentions of hell Jesus used two specific words; Gehenna and Hades. Two words for hell and both are completely different places. If both are two separate places then why translate them as one word? Earlier we saw that Sheol, a Hebrew word for the grave or unseen place, is also translated as hell frequently but not always. There is even a fourth word that has been translated as hell in the Bible but it will not be discussed today.

Let's focus on Gehenna as it is the word used with slightly more frequency by Jesus, 11 times out of 17 in the KJV. It is also notable that I mention the KJV specifically; in its various forms of the 1611, the KJV3, and the modern KJV, hell appears in differing numbers. Really? Yes! Do some research on this one. If you continue to search you will find some translations actually use the word Gehenna and do not even have the word hell in their entirety. Two notable and popular translations are the "literal" Young's and Rotherham Bibles- no hell to be found.

Matthew 5:22 is the first occurrence of Jesus using the word hell. If you have a concordance look up the word hell and find its index number which is g1067. Look to the index of Greek words and you will find the word Gehenna is associated with g1067. What exactly is Gehenna?

According to Jeremiah 7:31 Gehenna is called the valley of the son of Hinnom. God says, "And they go on building the high place of Topheth, which is in the valley of the son of Hinnom, to burn their sons and their daughters in the fire--which I did not command, nor did it come into my mind." The children of Israel were following a sacrificial custom of the gentiles which burned their children alive in the hands of the god Molech (Jeremiah 32:35), or Topeth. Also see 2 Kings 23:10.

Where was Gehenna, or this valley of the son of Hinnom? In Jeremiah 19:2 God commands the prophet to go somewhere and speak; "and go out to the valley of the son of Hinnom at the entry of the Potsherd Gate, and proclaim there the words that I tell you." The Potsherd gate is one of the gates of Jerusalem. The valley is south of the city. Later in verse 16 God changes the name of this horrid valley to "the valley of Slaughter".

We now have a word, Gehenna, which is an actual place that has historical meaning for the Jews. It was a place that God was disgusted with due to its use and God was also disgusted with His people for doing such an abomination. It was a place of burning children. The god was represented by a very large statue of metal that was also a furnace. This furnace was kept continually burning. The fire went up the interior heating outstretched hands where the children were laid bound.

Some claim that the valley eventually became the city dump where trash was burned continually and that the bodies of the unlawful who were not fit for burial were burned there as well. Others claim that there is no evidence of this. Either way, the valley was known by the Jews as a place where people were bound and laid on hands of fire for sacrificial reason to a god of pagans, a ritual the Jews copied and performed outside of there own city. This knowledge becomes very important to us as we read the passages where Jesus makes reference to Gehenna. It will become apparent that Jesus is not making reference to an place of eternal torment!

Disciples in danger!

Matthew 5:21-22 KJV
(21) Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
(22) But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

Matthew 5:1 tells who Jesus was talking to, it was not the masses but his disciples. The masses followed Jesus and he escaped them by going up the mountain where hos disciples found him. The following verses are spoken to the disciples. It appears at first glance Jesus is giving them a stern warning about some of the reasons one might end up in hell. I often wonder why Adam was not given such a talking to. Interesting as well that Cain, the first murderer, was banished from his homeland but never threatened with hell.

What actually happened then to these tragically murdered innocents? They died. They perished. When one perishes they are no more. What a sad situation Israel found themselves in.

So, Jesus tells his disciples, not the masses, that if their eye or hand offends, pluck it out or cut it off and throw it away. The implication is made that by doing so they can avoid being tossed into an eternal burning hell. If they call their brother a moron or idiot, they may suffer hell as well. What does Jesus say happens to one who is thrown into hell fire? They perish, they die. And what kind of death is one suffered in hell fire? A worthless death. Consider the word that Jesus used when he spoke "hell"; he actually was saying Gehenna. The "Gehenna of fire" or "Gehenna fire" would have been the phrase. It is now interesting to note that some translations actually use the word Gehenna. How much does this make sense! It really does because sometimes Jesus used the word Hades instead which gives an entirely different meaning.

Matthew 5:22 EWB-Companion Bible
(22) But I say unto you, That every one that is angry with his brother without a cause shall be liable to the council of three in the local synagogue:and every one that shall say to his brother, You ! , shall be liable to the Sanhedrin: but every one that shall say, Thou wicked reprobate, shall be liable unto the Gehenna of fire.

What happened to those thrown onto the hands of Gehenna fire? They died a worthless death. Bullinger's Companion Bible is the KJV with some revisions. The point is that the use of the proper name gives all of the meaning we need to understand, and it is NOT about burning forever in hell.

Gehenna as a place used from the result of Judgement

Jeremiah chapter 7 is a warning of what might come upon Israel should they not repent. The warning is tied to Gehenna, the Valley of the son of Hinnom, or the valley of Topeth. The nation of the north will come through and utterly devastate Jerusalem. The death toll will be such that the bodies will be buried in this valley, so many that they will run out of room. The bodies will be so many that they will not be buried and will be food for birds and wild animals. As others pass by Jerusalem and see this they will be appalled! Read Jeremiah 7:31 and 32.

Jeremiah 19:8 NRSV
And I will make this city a horror, a thing to be hissed at; everyone who passes by it will be horrified and will hiss because of all its disasters.

Isaiah 66:24 similarly mentioned a fire that is unquenchable, a fire that is burning dead bodies. These are the bodies that are dead and tossed in the valleys surrounding Jerusalem due to the judgement of God. This actually happened! The disciples would know of this. Mark 9:43-48 draws from Isaiah regarding the unquenchable fire. The danger in Matthew 5 is not of eternal burning in a mythical hell which was invented by Jewish sages during the time between the Testaments, but of the results of judgement. Jesus is simply stating, get right, walk right, it is better to do so then to face judgement.

Josephus in his Wars of the Jews book 5, chapter 12, verse 3, states that during the Roman siege of Jerusalem the Jews were no longer able to bury the dead in the city. These unfortunate dead were thrown over the walls into the valleys surrounding the city where they rotted.

So, we can connect Gehenna fire with human sacrifice and a valley in which the bodies of Jerusalem will be thrown due to the lack of burial space after God removes His hand, or hides His face from them, so they will face judgement. One action they will face judgement for is burning their sons and daughters alive. These are the visions that fill the disciples minds when Jesus speaks of Gehenna fire, not an eternally burning fire. We can also say that this example involves Jews only, not gentiles. Finally, we can see that not only was this a historic fact that the Jews could relate to, it was something that happened again to which Jesus himself prophesied (think the narrow and wide gates).

There is much more to this topic that can be looked at another time!

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Sheol

3/21/2016

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​As I wrote the last blog (about Joseph) I was reminded of how many men in the Old Testament wish to be in Sheol. What follows is not meant to offend, just to offer a different view.

Genesis  42:38 from the KJV: 
"And he said, My son shall not go down with you; for his brother is dead, and he is left alone: if mischief befall him by the way in the which ye go, then shall ye bring down my gray hairs with sorrow to the grave." 

So, the 'ultimate Word of God', the KJV, the only translation that gives every word God breathed, including punctuation (did you know that the Greek of the New Testament had no punctuation? It was added to make it more readable.), uses the word "grave". Is that what Jacob really meant, that he would be brought down to the grave because of stress? Yes! That is exactly what he meant!

Well then, let me point out that the word "grave" in this verse is actually the Hebrew word "Sheol". Now I do not wish to confuse anyone but it seems that this is exactly what the KJV has done. How? It has translated the word Sheol as "hell" in other places. 

Job 11:8 from the KJV: 
It is as high as heaven; what canst thou do? deeper than hell; what canst thou know? 

So in Job we see the word Sheol translated as "hell" in the KJV. How is this possible? Is Sheol the grave or is it hell?

Psalms 16:9, 10  from the KJV: 
Therefore my heart is glad, and my glory rejoiceth: my flesh also shall rest in hope. 
For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. 

We again have the same confusion though multiplied! In this Psalm of David does he claim that his soul will, at some point in time, be in hell? Yes! This is exactly what David is claiming, if, you believe that the KJV is the ONLY true word of God! Did we just agree that David is in hell, or was in hell, or will be in hell? David has been gone for a long time (thousands of years), perhaps God allowed him to suffer the fires of hell for his evil works, which David did have as we all know. Yet the apostle Paul said that David was still with us in the grave, at least to the day Paul said it. 

David never went to a burning hell (Sheol), David died and is still, yes even today, in the grave (Sheol). David awaits a resurrection. 

Psalm 30:3  from the KJV:
O LORD, thou hast brought up my soul from the grave: thou hast kept me alive, that I should not go down to the pit.

In this last example David is again in "hell", oh no, I mean the "grave", or is it "Sheol"? The "grave" in Psalm 30:3 is the same word as "hell" in Psalm 16:10. Sheol. 

So then what is Sheol and how can it best be described? Sheol is quite literally, the grave. However ancient people did not always see a grave we we modern folks do. Both the ancient Hebrews  (Sheol) and Greeks (Hades) referenced the grave as a place unseen; once you went in the ground buried, you were unseen. There is more depth to this yet it is also that simple. Do some "digging" yourself, free your mind from the bondage of man made tradition. Google it, read up on it. 

How often did Jesus talk about hell? More than he spoke of heaven? That is the claim anyway. More next time...

A good starter reference:
​http://what-the-hell-is-hell.com/


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